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Chris Moellering's avatar

I think there is a strong case that all 4 Gospels were written pre-70 AD.

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Glenn Seleen's avatar

What do you think of the theory that John had his Revelation of Jesus first and then wrote his gospel a decade or two after this (assuming that the John of Revelation is the writer of the gospel)? This could be a possible explanation for the difference in the Greek grammar between the two.

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