A common line in scholarship is that the Jesus of John’s Gospel is subordinated, i.e., Jesus is not merely the Father’s agent, but he is in some ways inferior to the Father. The fact that the Johannine Jesus declares at one point, “The Father is greater than I” (Jn 14:28) would seem to put the matter to bed as this is an explicit statement of the Son’s inferiority. Many, from Arians to Unitarians to modern scholars, have thought so.
While we may get the idea of "oneness" [sic], it would very helpful to unpack "mutual indwelling" a bit more. Perhaps a follow-up post?