The other day I was reading an essay by German scholar Hans Dieter Betz and he made a very interesting point about how religious visions lead to liturgical acts like hymns and hymns, in turn, generate theology.
This was so instructive, especially the value that the ancients gave to a vision of deity and the necessity of a response. I will never look at the Philippian passage again without reflecting on the glorious beatific vision Paul must have received prompting his response.
I’d never realised the Phil 2 passage was a hymn - a hymn of a ‘vision’. Of course, that makes sense! So as a hymn, would you say it uses poetic license like songs do, instead of being didactic? For instance I’ve often thought of the part in v.10, where every knee bows to Jesus as Lord- those in heaven (I’m guessing, angels), on earth (the reigning church) and under the earth (those who already died or perhaps are in Hades), to be of meaning. But if it’s a song, maybe it’s just a poetic way of saying- “Jesus’ name has been so exalted and every creature can see that now”. In other words, instead of getting post-grave teaching from here, we just focus on the exaltation of Jesus part?
Hi Mary, well, it is disputed, some think Phil 2.6-11 is a hymn, others think its creedal material, others think its extended prose, others a kind of piece of rhetorical praise. I'm hoping to do a Nazareth to Nicaea episode on this soon.
This was so instructive, especially the value that the ancients gave to a vision of deity and the necessity of a response. I will never look at the Philippian passage again without reflecting on the glorious beatific vision Paul must have received prompting his response.
I’d never realised the Phil 2 passage was a hymn - a hymn of a ‘vision’. Of course, that makes sense! So as a hymn, would you say it uses poetic license like songs do, instead of being didactic? For instance I’ve often thought of the part in v.10, where every knee bows to Jesus as Lord- those in heaven (I’m guessing, angels), on earth (the reigning church) and under the earth (those who already died or perhaps are in Hades), to be of meaning. But if it’s a song, maybe it’s just a poetic way of saying- “Jesus’ name has been so exalted and every creature can see that now”. In other words, instead of getting post-grave teaching from here, we just focus on the exaltation of Jesus part?
What do you think?
Hi Mary, well, it is disputed, some think Phil 2.6-11 is a hymn, others think its creedal material, others think its extended prose, others a kind of piece of rhetorical praise. I'm hoping to do a Nazareth to Nicaea episode on this soon.
Translators seem to think it’s one of them as it’s always indented- something I’d never noticed before. I’ll wait for your talk on this.
Mary, oh boy, the literature written on this is immense. It's a hymn, a poem, a creed, prose, rhetoric. It goes on and on.